Post by theaterlover on Jan 4, 2013 16:47:14 GMT -5
From the specs, and XPA-2 has 45,000uF of secondary capacitance, while the XPA-5 has 60,000uF.
My question is about how this capacitance is divided among the channels during general use.
If an XPA-2 is receiving the same signal to both inputs, my assumption is that the 45,000 is shared equally between both (45,000/2). If one channel if significantly higher than the other, will that capacitance be greater for that channel (say 35,000 & 10,000) ?
Likewise for the XPA-5. Say two of the five channels are receiving a heavy load, will more of the capacitance be shared with those two channels, or is it always equal between channels? Or, to put it in another way, say only two channels of the XPA-5 were in use. Would that mean that those two channels would actually have greater secondary capacitance (60,000uF/2) than an XPA-2 (45,000uF/2), or would it be 24,000uF/2 for the XPA-5 as all channels share the capacitance whether in use or not?
Thanks.
My question is about how this capacitance is divided among the channels during general use.
If an XPA-2 is receiving the same signal to both inputs, my assumption is that the 45,000 is shared equally between both (45,000/2). If one channel if significantly higher than the other, will that capacitance be greater for that channel (say 35,000 & 10,000) ?
Likewise for the XPA-5. Say two of the five channels are receiving a heavy load, will more of the capacitance be shared with those two channels, or is it always equal between channels? Or, to put it in another way, say only two channels of the XPA-5 were in use. Would that mean that those two channels would actually have greater secondary capacitance (60,000uF/2) than an XPA-2 (45,000uF/2), or would it be 24,000uF/2 for the XPA-5 as all channels share the capacitance whether in use or not?
Thanks.
