It says 4 ohm, is that when you have binding posts connected parallel ?
Then each binding post is 8 ohm ?
The reason i am asking is that i have a Rotel RB-956AX, it has 6 channels that dont like to go below 4 ohm and i can bridge those channels but then it needs a minimum impedance of 8 ohm. Now that im buying the ERM-6.3 and the ERD-1 i was thinking that i would connect the ERD-1s to a channel each, then i have 4 channels left for the ERM-6.3, should i give each binding post on the ERM-6.3 a bridged channel to use all the channels on the RB-956AX ?
Yes, and no. While in sum it does have a Nominal Impedance of 4 Ohms. Remember that impedance shifts with respect to frequency, you need to keep in mind that bridging or what we used to call when I had all black hair, "Bootstrapping". The amplifier is half the impedance vs. running Non Bridge mode. Want an easier way to go vs. Bridging? Just vertically Bi-Amplify your ERM-6.3 instead. Then everything is the peachy as far as stability of the amplifier and so on. That way you can give the ERM-6.3 the extra oomph you are looking for, and still enjoy the ERD-1 speakers on the remaining channels of the Rotel.